SHIUR #13: MEKADESH BE-MASHKON

                     by Rav Ezra Bick

 The sugya of 'mekadesh be-mashkon' (8a-b) has two  distinct parts.  First we shall discuss the case known as  mekadesh be-mashkon - one who gives a pledge, in lieu of  money, to a woman in order to effect kiddushin.  Secondly, we  shall discuss the case known as mashkon de-acheirim - one who  transfers a pledge that he received from somebody else to a  woman in order to effect kiddushin.

A.  Mekadesh be-mashkon - The gemara says: "If he said to her,  be betrothed to me through a maneh (100 zuz) and he gave her a  pledge (mashkon) for it, she is not mekudeshet - the maneh is  not here; the pledge is not here."  The exact meaning of the  concluding phrase is the subject of a disagreement among the  Rishonim.

Rashi writes: "The maneh is not here - THEREFORE the  mashkon is worthless, as it is not a gift."  The Rosh  elaborates: "The mashkon is not attached (meshu'abad - subject  to a lien) to anything, for a man may attach his property to a  debt for which he is obligated, but for something for which he  is not obligated, no attachment can apply to his property.   The gift which he intended to give (her) is not an obligation  nor will it be one, as he may renege.  Therefore, the mashkon  is not attached when she obtains it."

The reading of the gemara according to this explanation  is as follows: The maneh is not here - there is no obligation  on the man to give the maneh to the woman - hence, the mashkon  is meaningless and is not really a mashkon at all.  It cannot  be used to obtain anything from the man and must be returned  when he requests it.  Hence, there is nothing that can be  considered kesef kiddushin - he has given her no monetary  value that can effect the kiddushin.  Only if a valid prior  obligation on the man to give money to the woman existed,  could a mashkon be given to secure the debt.  In such a case,  it would appear, the mashkon could also serve as kesef  kiddushin.  The rights that the woman would obtain in the  mashkon, which enable her to eventually collect the debt, are  apparently considered to be kesef, even though the mashkon  itself will be redeemed when the debt is paid.

It is important to distinguish between two different  issues here.  The first is one of civil law - can one acquire  a mashkon without a prior debt?  Does the recipient of a  mashkon in this case have any rights in it, or must he return  it when requested?  The second issue is one of kiddushin.  If  there were rights obtained in a mashkon, would the granting of  those rights be effective for kiddushin?  Rashi, the Rosh, and  Tosafot answer the first question in the negative and the  second in the positive.  There is no such thing as a mashkon  without a prior debt, but giving a woman a mashkon from a  proper debt would effect kiddushin.

The Ramban disagrees with both points.  He interprets the  critical sentence of the gemara as follows: "Since he is not  betrothing her with the mashkon itself ('mashkon gufa'), even  though he said to her: acquire it as a lien on the maneh, AND  SHE DID ACQUIRE IT, the mashkon is not here - i.e., it does  not effect a kinyan, as it is like a loan which is not in  existence, since the maneh is not here.  Hence, she is not  betrothed and he may get his mashkon back from her."

The Ramban first claims that giving the mashkon to the  woman in order to secure the maneh is effective - "she did  acquire it."  Nonetheless, kiddushin is not effected because  of a deficiency in fulfilling the laws of kiddushin - this is  an equivalent to mekadesh be-milveh, to betrothing with a loan  (6b).  Therefore, even though the woman has obtained rights in  the mashkon, she is not mekudeshet.  As we said, the Ramban  clearly disagrees with both points of the Rosh.

Concerning the first point, the Avnei Miluim claims that  the Ramban holds that a lien may be effected on property even  without the existence of a personal debt (shi'abud nekhasim  without shi'abud ha-guf).  This is what the Rosh explicitly  rejects - how can there be a security for a non-existent loan?   There is, however, an alternative way to understand the  Ramban.  He may be claiming that giving a mashkon is an  acceptable method of CREATING A NEW indebtedness. 

The issue under discussion here is the appropriateness of  a given method of creating a personal debt.  Like acquisition  of property, the creation of a debt requires a kinyan (formal  act of acquisition).  The preferred method is shtar - a deed -  or, according to some, chalipin.  Those Rishonim who disagree  with the Ramban claim that an act of kinyan must relate to the  object to which the kinyan applies.  If you are trying to buy  a shirt, the kinyan must in some way involve the shirt itself.   In the creation of a personal debt, the object that is being  obligated by this transaction is the person himself.  Hence,  shtar or chalipin are acceptable kinyanim to effect a personal  debt, as both of these methods can create a kinyan on any  object, including a person.  However, physical possession of  the mashkon is an appropriate method of kinyan only on the  mashkon itself, but does not obligate the person who gave the  mashkon. 

The Avnei Miluim accepts this argument implicitly; hence,  he explains that the Ramban holds that a shi'abud nekhasim - a  quasi-kinyan on the mashkon - is created by giving it to the  woman, without any change in status relating to the person of  the man.  My alternative is that the Ramban maintains that by  possessing the mashkon, a shi'abud is simultaneously created  on the person of the man, in the same way that it could be  created through shtar or chalipin.  Once this is accepted, the  mashkon is a perfectly normal one, a security for an existing  debt, in which the woman has rights that she need not  relinquish unless he pays his debt and gives her the maneh.   The language of the Rosh when quoting the opinion that he  rejects (without mentioning the name of the Ramban) supports  this understanding.

The Ramban therefore explains that although she has  acquired certain rights, and these rights are economically  valuable, she is not married for another reason.   Betrothing  by giving the bride these rights is the equivalent of mekadesh  be-milveh, as no particular object of value is being received  right now.  Since the maneh is not transferred now, even  though she has obtained rights to it, this is ineffectual in  kiddushin.  This is parallel to what takes place in the case  of mekadesh be-milveh, where the woman obtains the right to  not repay a debt, but no money exchanges hands at that time.   In other words, the Rosh considers the debt to be an object of  value (and she would be mekudeshet were such a debt to exist);  the Ramban considers it to be merely a right to obtain an  object of value in the future.  As far as kiddushin is  concerned, a debt is not an object of value.

(The second half of this shiur will discuss mekadesh be- mashkon de-acheirim - transferring a mashkon from a debtor to  the woman.  In that case, it appears that the transfer of a  debt can be used to effect kiddushin, implying that the debt  per se is a legitimate object.  We shall discuss the Ramban's  distinction between the two cases below.)

What would be the response of the Ramban to the argument  that possession of a mashkon cannot effect a personal debt as  it does not relate to the object that is being obligated by  the kinyan (the person of the debtor)?  I think the answer is  that he considers the mashkon to be an objectification of the  debt.  A shi'abud nekhasim and a shi'abud ha-guf are not two  different things - one is the property objectification of the  other.  Hence, by obtaining physical possession of an object  from which a debt can be collected, one is obtaining power -  shi'abud - over the debtor as well.

As we shall see below, many Rishonim agree that transfer  of a mashkon of an existent debt from the creditor to another  person transfers the debt from the debtor to that person.  The  logic here is similar - the debt is somehow "in" the mashkon,  and possession of the mashkon relates to the debt itself and  not merely to the mashkon as an object.  The difference here  is that the debt does not yet exist.  The Ramban is claiming  that not only does a mashkon of a debt objectify the debt, but  any object may be converted into a mashkon in order to provide  a method to create that debt.  This is a significant extension  of the more accepted position concerning transfer of existing  debts, but it is based on a similar concept.

B.  Mashkon de-acheirim - The gemara continues by stating that  one may betroth a woman through the transfer of an existing  mashkon, which he holds as security from his debtor.  This is  based on a statement of R. Yitzchak, that a creditor acquires  ("koneh") i.e., has rights of ownership in the mashkon.

According to the approach of the Rosh above, the  explanation here is obvious.  In the previous case, the  mashkon was not a valid mashkon, as it was not securing an  existent loan.  Here, the mashkon is the security on a loan  between the man and his debtor.  Giving it to the woman  transfers to her the rights inherent in the mashkon, and the  Rosh agrees that this is effectual.  Since she need not return  the mashkon to the debtor if he does not pay her his debt, her  receiving the mashkon has put in her hands - legally - an  object of value.  Since she received this value from the man,  she may be betrothed by this transfer.  The only question is:  Why is the statement of R. Yitzchak a necessary prerequisite  of this explanation?

A simple explanation would be that the ability of the man  to transfer the mashkon to someone else depends on his having  ownership rights in the mashkon.  The debt is personal -  between him and the debtor.  The mashkon, if understood merely  as a pledge given to the creditor with the stipulation that he  need not return it without receiving payment, could not be  transferred to another party.  The power to give something to  someone else, in essence, is the power of ownership.  R.  Yitzchak is saying that the power of collection inherent in a  mashkon is a property right of the creditor, which can be  transferred to another like any other property right.

The facts of mashkon are not in question here.  Someone  who holds a pledge cannot be forced to return it unless the  debtor repays the loan.  R. Yitzchak defines this ability to  hold on to the property of someone else and not return it on  demand to be a type of ownership.  He is arguing that if the  object were completely the property of the debtor, the  creditor would not have a right to hold on to it.  Whatever  rights the creditor has, therefore, are transferable.  Hence,  he can give the object, with respect to those rights, to a  woman in return for her betrothal.

The anonymous opposing opinion to R. Yitzchak denies that  the ability of a creditor to withhold a pledge implies a right  of ownership in the pledge.  Although the pledge belongs  wholly to the debtor, and the creditor is only a 'shomer,' a  guardian, holding it in trust, the agreement between them  allows him to maintain that trust irrespective of the wishes  of the owner.  I think this means that the agreement between  them is personal, rather than a right in the object.  The  creditor is not obligated to accept instructions from the  debtor.  This relationship is not transferable to another, as  it has not been objectified as a property right.  Only the  introduction of R. Yitzchak, then, allows one to give the  mashkon, an object of value, to the woman, thereby endowing  her with the rights inherent in the mashkon.

The Ramban, who has ruled the giving of a valid mashkon  as ineffectual for kiddushin, has more of a problem here.   What is the difference between one's own mashkon, and the  transfer of someone else's?  Let us try and analyze the words  of the Ramban.  The Ramban writes:"... if she acquires a lien  on a debtor she is betrothed.... Therefore, a loan with a  mashkon, since she obtains a partial kinyan... she is  betrothed with it....  But only with a loan of others (i.e.,  the man's debtor), as the lien leaves the hands of the man and  comes into the hands of the woman.  However, a lien on  himself; e.g., (if he says) I am obligated to pay you a maneh,  using a deed or chalipin (to establish the obligation), cannot  be used to effectuate kiddushin, in the same way as a loan  (cannot be used to effectuate kiddushin - mekadesh be-milveh),  as HERE (in the usual case of a loan) NOTHING COMES INTO  HER  HANDS, AND HERE (in the case of a new mashkon) NOTHING  LEAVES  HIS HANDS, AS A LIEN IS IN THE HANDS OF THE CREDITOR,  and all  the value (mammon) remains by him, AND SINCE IT IS  ATTACHED TO  HIM IT IS NOT KIDDUSHIN."[Read the paragraph slowly and try  and understand the distinction.]

The phrase, "a lien is in the hands of the creditor" was  the central expression used to explain, in the previous  section of the Ramban, why mekadesh be-milveh is not  effective.  The distinction made by the Ramban in this  section, though, is not immediately understood.  We shall now  examine how this point is cited by subsequent Rishonim.

The Ritva and the Ran pose alternate methods for  explaining this distinction.  The Ritva writes, "There (in  loan of others), when she acquires the loan, he loses value  (mammon - an object of worth), as the lien of the creditor  leaves him and is acquired by her; but a lien on himself in  which he obligates himself through deed or chalipin, WHERE  NOTHING LEAVES HIM... is not kiddushin."

The Ran writes: "In a case of loan of others the kesef  kiddushin is not connected to the man at all, since as soon as  he has betrothed her with that loan, there is nothing of hers  by him.  This is not the case where the loan is his, as "the  maneh is not here"; i.e., the maneh with which he is  betrothing her IS STILL ATTACHED TO HIM, AND KESEF  KIDDUSHIN  WHICH IS ATTACHED TO THE HUSBAND is not kesef kiddushin."

The Ritva is stressing the fact that in a loan of others,  the man possessed something before the kiddushin - a lien -  which he loses by the act of kiddushin.  When he creates a new  obligation to the woman, however, nothing existent leaves his  possession, although he is now poorer and she is richer.  In  other words, the Ritva is defining the act of kiddushin with  kesef as "giving" - which requires a pre-existent object in  one's possession and its transfer to another's.

The Ran is claiming that "giving" must result in total  divorce of the giver from the object.  The stress here is not  on the pre-existent nature of the lien, but on its subsequent  separation from the giver.  Where a lien is transferred, there  is no connection after-the-fact between the woman and the man,  the former creditor.  Where a lien is created, he remains  "attached" to the lien after the completion of the act of  kiddushin.

Both the Ran and the Ritva are using a definition of  "giving" to distinguish between the two cases.  To give is to  lose something.  The Ritva maintains that the concept of loss  demands that he own the object before the act.  The Ran  requires that he not own or be connected to the object in any  way after the act.  A careful comparison of these definitions  with the citation from the Ramban above reveals the common  source for both of them.[Read over the citation from the  Ramban above and see if you understand it now.]

It should be noted that the explanation of mashkon de- acheirim of the Rosh permits us to conclude that the object of  the kesef kiddushin is the mashkon itself.  The explanation of  the Ramban posits that the object is the shi'abud, the lien,  or the debt.  The Rosh can also agree to this.  In the first  case of the gemara, there was neither a lien, nor a mashkon,  according to the Rosh.  In the second case, either one is  potentially a candidate for kesef kiddushin, since both are  present.  All that is needed in order to validate the lien as  kesef kiddushin, is to claim that the transfer of a mashkon  from the man to the woman transfers to her the personal debt  of the debtor.  The Ramban undoubtedly maintains this  position, and the Rosh, even though he argues that this method  cannot create a new indebtedness, may agree that it can be  used to transfer an existent one.                           

 *****

Sources and Questions for Next Week's Shiur:

Topic: "Tena'im Al Gabi Sela  - The Scope of Areivut"

1) Gemara 8b "Tannu Rabannan Hitkadshi...at", Rashi s.v. Ve- im, Tosafot  s.v. Im. What is the argument between Rashi and Tosafot regarding the  distinction of the gemara? 2) Ritva s.v. Tannu(#3), until "...piv chayev."What important  component does the Ritva add to Tosafot's position? 3) Ramban "Hayeta...mekudeshet", Rashba s.v. Ha.How do the  Ramban and Rashba explain Rashi's rejection of Tosafot's  position? 4) Tosafot Rid "Al...be-yada dami", Shita Lo Noda Le-mi s.v.  Tena'im Al. How do these two Rishonim respond to the assertion of the  Rashba?